Bộ đề thi tiếng Anh ôn vào lớp 10 và ôn thi HỌC SINH GIỎI – Phần 1

Full name:…………………….…………

PART I: PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C, or D:

1. A. clerk

B. terse

C. term

D. jerk

2. A. hand

B. bank

C. sand

D. band

3. A. honey

B. rhythm

C. exhume

D. behold

4. A. dormitory

B. information

C. organization

D. forward

5. A. food

B. shoot

C. shook

D. spool

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling

A, B, C, or D:

6. A. exchange

B. invite

C. economic

D. embroider

7. A. intermediate

B. documentary

C. reputation

D. communicate

8. A. benefit

B. environment

C. wonderful

D. category

9. A. century

B. conclusion

C. available

D. ambition

10.A. contain

B. achieve

C. improve

D. visit

PART II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences:

11. I had to get up early, ……………..….I would miss the train.

A. otherwise

B. if not

C. so that

D. but

12. My parents are going to take three days…….next month to help my brother move his house.

A. at

B. over

C. off

D. out

13. English is used as an access …………….….a world scholarship and world trade.

A. into

B. to

C. for

D. towards

14. Parents love and support their children ……….the children misbehave or do foolish things.

A. if

B. since

C. only if

D. even if

15. The Historical Museum is becoming ……………..…. crowded.

A. much and more

B. more and more

C. much and much

D. more and much

16. The scheme allows students from many countries to communicate……………….

A. with other

B. themselves

C. each other

D. with one another

17. Have you ever read anything……………..….Earnest Hengmingway?

A. by

B. of

C. from

D. for

18. Not a good movie,……………..….?

A. did it

B. didn’t it

C. was it

D. wasn’t it

19. Hoi An is……………..….for its old, small and tile-roofed houses.

A. well-done

B. well-dressed

C. well-organized

D. well-known

20. Hurry up! They have only got……………..….seats left.

A. a lot of

B. plenty of

C. a little

D. a few

21. The party, at ….. I was the guest honor, was extremely enjoyable.

A. that

B. who

C. which

D. where

22. _______ parrots are native to tropical regions is untrue.

A. All B. That all C. Since all D. Why all

23. I came ………………an old friend while I was walking along the street.

A. across

B. into

C. over

D. for

24. Everyone ………………Tom was invited to the party.

A. as

B. from

C. but

D. for

25. If you ………….to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess now.

A. listen

B. will listen

C. listened

D. had listened

II. Use the words given to form a word that fits in the space.

26. He has little……………..….of winning a prize. EXPECT

27. He resigned for a……………..….of reasons. VARIOUS

28. He is very generous and everyone admires his……………..…. . SELF

29. It seems……………..….to change the timetable so often. LOGIC

30. It is……………..….that you missed the meeting. FORTUNE

31. Could you……………..….the picture over the sofa? STRAIGHT

32. She wanted to have her skirt……………..…. LONG

33. They all cheered……………..….as their team came out. ENTHUSIASM

34. He will not benefit……………..….from the deal. FINANCE

35. “Look after your mother,” were his.. ……………..….words. DIE

III. Complete each of the following sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given below ( make any necessary changes)

Go over

give off

hold back

call off

pay off

bring out

put aside

make up for

see( someone) off

put( someone) through to

run out of

bring( someone) round

36. They had to ……………… the football match because of weather.

37. We managed to ……………… by splashing his face with water.

38. Could you ……………… the manager, please?

39. The detective carefully ……………… the facts with the witness.

40. We’ve ……………… sugar, could you go and buy some?

41. As the detective stories become popular once again, the publishing house decides to ……………… a new edition of Christie’s work.

42. The film was so sad that she couldn’t ……………… her tears.

43. Ten employees were ……………… as there wasn’t enough work for us.

44. He bought some flowers to ……………… his bad behavior.

45. The old widow warned her two sons not to spend so much money so fast in case that some thing could happen and told them to ……………… some money for the future.

PART III: READING

I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)

NEW HUNT FOR LIFE IN SPACE

British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of life on (46) ……………..…. planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton Laboratory have designed a telescope that is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known as ‘Darwin’, his telescope could tell if planets 50 (47) ……………..….years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (48) ……………..…., NASA scientists had shown a proof that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his telescope may be included in a European Space Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a (49) ……………..…. of 500 million, is on a short list of two proposals. If approved it will probably be (50) ……………..…. around 2015, its destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The blueprint is actually for five telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (51) ……………..…. processing station. The combined data from these telescopes would build up a full picture of a planet, picking out faint images that have never been seen before. Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the planets it (52) ……………..…., but Penny believes a second- generation telescope could be sent up to do this. He claims it is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (53) ……………..….galaxy, even though these planets lie (54)_______ our reach for the moment. The European Space Agency will make its decision (55) ……………..…. Darwin within three years.

46. A. another B. other C. others D. the other

47. A. light B. lighten C. lightening D. lighting

48. A. following B. after C. next D. later

49. A. price B. schedule C. charge D. budget

50. A. driven B. fetched C. launched D. taken

51. A. central B. centre C. middle D. heart

52. A. invents B. searches C. discovers D. looks

53. A. alone B. same C. one D. own

54. A. out B. toward C. beyond D. over

55. A. of B. on C. about D. with

II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage.

Traveling to all corners of the world is (56) ……………..…. easier and easier. We live (57) ……………..…. a global village, but how well do we know and understand each other ? Here is (58) ……………..…. simple test. Imagine you have arranged a meeting at 4 p.m. What time should you expect your foreign business colleagues to arrive? If they are German, they’ll be exactly (59) ……………..…. time. If they are American, they’ll probably be 15 minutes early. If they are British, they be 15 minutes (60) ……………..…., and you should allow up to an hour for the Indians. Therefore, these are some small advice in (61) ……………..…. not to behave badly abroad. In France you shouldn’t sit down in a cafard until you are shaken hands with everyone you know. In Afghanistan you’d better spend at last 5 minutes (62) ……………..…. hello. In Pakistan you mustn’t wink. It is offensive. In the Middle East you must never use the left hand for greeting, eating, drinking or smoking. Also, you should care not to admire (63) ……………..…. in your host’s home. They will feel that they have to give it to you. In Russia you must your hosts drink for drink or they will think you are unfriendly. In Thailand you should clasp your hands (64) ……………..…. and lower your head and your eyes when you greet someone. In America you should eat your hamburger with both hands and as quickly as (65) ……………..….. You shouldn’t try to have a conversation until it is eaten.

III. Circle the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions:

Man is a land animal, but he is also closely tied to the sea. Throughout history the sea has served the need of man. The sea has provided man with food and a convenient way to travel to many parts of the world. Today, nearly two thirds of the world’s population live within 80 km of the sea coast.

In the modern technological world, the sea offers many resources to help mankind survive. Resources on land are beginning to be used up. The sea, however, still can be hoped to supply many of man’s needs. The list of riches of the sea yet to be developed by man’s technology is impressive. Oil and gas explorations have been carried out for nearly 30 years. A lot of valuable minerals exist on the ocean floor ready to be mined.

Fish farming promises to be a good way to produce large quantities of food. The culture of fish and shellfish is an ancient skill practiced in the past mainly by Oriental people.

Besides oil and gas, the sea may offer new sources of energy. Experts believe that the warm temperature of the ocean can be used in a way similar to the steam in a steamship. Ocean currents and waves offer possible use as a source of energy.

Technology is enabling man to explore ever more deeply under the sea. The development of strong, new materials has made this possible.

The technology to harvest the sea continues to improve. Experts believe that by the year 2050s the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the food, minerals, and energy sources of the sea will be largely solved.

66. The best title for this passage is ……………..…..

A. Sea Harvest.

C. Sea Food.

B. Technology and the Exploiting of the Sea.

D. Man and Sea.

67. The major things that the sea offers man are ……………..…..

A. food, energy sources and minerals.

C. minerals and oil.

B. fish and oil.

D. ocean currents and waves.

68. The sea serves the needs of man because ……………..…..

A. it provides man with sea food.

C. it supplies man with minerals.

B. it offers oil to man.

D. all of the above.

69. The word Oriental people in the fourth paragraph probably means ……………..…..

A. European people.

C. Asian people.

B. African people.

D. American people.

70. We can conclude from the passage that ……………..…..

A. the sea resources have largely been used up.

B. the sea, in a broad sense, hasn’t yet been developed.

C. the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the sea have already been solved.

D. by the year 2050, the technology will be good enough to exploit all the sea resources.

PART IV: WRITING:

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning.

71. It was wrong of you to allow a four-year-old child to walk home alone.

– You should …………………………………………………………………………………………..

72. I could realize how important the family is only after I left home.

– Not until ……………………………………………………………………………………………..

73. Mrs. Green is proud of her son’s contribution to the play.

– Mrs. Green is proud of what ……………………………………………………….

74. They recruited very few young engineers. – Hardly …………………………………………………………………..

75. Only two out of the five rooms we have booked have air conditioning.

– We have booked five rooms, only ………………………………………………………..

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in anyway.

76. It’s possible Karen didn’t hear her name being called. might

→ Karen .…………………………………… ……………… her name being called.

77. “Don’t forget to lock the house when you go out, William,” his mother said. reminded

→ William’s mother …………………………………………… when he went out.

78. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. against

→ Against .……………………………………… …………………….. she lost

79. There weren’t many guests at the wedding. only

→ There were ………………………………………………… guests at the wedding.

80. Promise to look after it and you can borrow my tennis racquet. long

→ You can borrow my tennis racquet, ……………………………. to look after it.

III. Write a paragraph (of about 150 words) in which you suggest several ways to protect the environment of your school.

(3 pts)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

 

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

I. Listen and fill in the gaps with the adjectives or adverbs you hear. (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)

1. comfortable

2. delicious

3. great

4. suitable

5. fully

6. sleepy

7. thankful

8. terribly

9. probably

10. immediately

 

 

II. Listen to the conversation and circle the correct answers. (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

11. Which course is the man interested in?

A. English

B. Mandarin

 

C. Japanese

 

 

12. What kind of course is the man seeking?

A. Daytime

 

B. Evenings

C. Weekends

 

13. How long does the man want to study?

A. 12 weeks

 

B. 6 months

 

C. 8 months

 

14. What proficiency level is the student?

A. Beginner

 

B. Intermediate

 

C. Advanced

 

15. When does the man want to start the course?

A. March

 

B. June

 

C. September

 

 

PART II: PHONETICS (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

1. A. clerk

 

4. B. information

 

2. B. bank

 

5. C. shook

 

3. B. rhythm

 

 

 

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

6. C. economic

 

9. A. century

 

7. D. communicate

 

10.D. visit

 

8. B. environment

 

 

 

 

PART III VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR ( 6.5 pts)

I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (0,2 x 15 = 3 pts)

 

11. A. otherwise

16. D. with one another

21. C. which

12. C. off

17. A. by

22. B. That all

13. B. to

18. C. was it

23. A. across

14. D. even if

19. D. well-known

24. C. but

15. B. more and more

20. D. a few

25. D. had listened

II. Use the words given to form a word that fits in the space. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)

 

26. expectation

31. straighten

27. variety

32. lengthened

28. selflessness/ unselfishness

33. enthusiastically

29. illogical

34. financially

30. unfortunate

35. dying

 

III. Complete each of the following sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given below ( make any necessary changes) (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)

 

36. call off

41. bring out

37. bring him round

42. hold back

38. put through to

43. paid off

39. went over

44. make up for

40. run out of

45. put aside

 

PART IV. READING:

I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)

 

46. B. other

51. A. central

47. A. light

52. C. discovery

48. D. later

53. D. own

49. D. budget

54. C. beyond

50. C. launched

55. B. on

II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)

56. getting/ becoming

61. order

57. in

62. saying

58. a

63. anything

59. on

64. together

60. late

65. possible

III. Circle the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions: (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

66. B

69. C

67. A

70. D

68. D

 

PART V: WRITING: (4.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

 

71. You should not have allowed a four-year-old child to walk home alone.

72. Not until I left home, could/ did I realize how important the family is.

73. Mrs. Green is proud of what her son contributes/ can contribute to the play.

74. Hardly any young engineers were recruited.

75. We have booked five rooms, only two of which have air-conditioning.

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in anyway

. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)

76. Karen might not have heard her name being called.

77. William’s mother reminded him to lock the house when he went out.

78. Against everyone’s expectation she lost.

79. There were only a few guests at the wedding.

80. You can borrow my tennis racquet, as/ so long as you promise to look after it.

 

III. Write a paragraph (of about 150 words) in which you suggest several ways to protect the environment of your school. (3pts)

 

– Bài viết đủ mở bài, thân bài, kết luận. (0.5pt)

– Thân bài nêu được ít nhất 3 lí do; có sử dụng connectors and link words (2,0)

– Kết luận: nêu ý kiến của bản thân (0.25) ; đủ số lượng từ (0,25)

 

 

Full name:…………………….…………WRITTEN TEST FOR GOOD SS. ENGLISH 9 – No 2

 

I. PHONETICS:

 

a. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (3 0,2 = 0,6 pt)

 

1. A. uniform B. ticket C. tide D. inspiration

2. A. great B. bread C. break D. steak

3. A. cleaned B. repaired C. planned D. laughed

 

b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (3 0,2 = 0,6 pt)

 

4. A. understand B. engineer C. benefit D. Vietnamese

5. A. inspiration B. experience C. communicate D. embroidery

6. A. money B. army C. afraid D. people

II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:

a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (20 0,2 = 4,0 pts)

 

7. Hurry up, there’s …… time left.

A. a little B. a few C. little D. few

8. For lunch, you may have _________ fish or chicken.

A. both B. neither C. not only D. either

9. The clerk said she was tired …… hearing complaints day after day.

A. with B. of C. about D. for

10. You and I are busy right now, ……?

A. aren’t I B. aren’t we C. we aren’t D. aren’t you

11. We arrived …… to have some coffee before class.

A. enough early B. early enough C. too early D. early too

12. “What are you doing?”

“I …… the flowers. They …… wonderful!”

A. am smelling / smell B. smell / smell

C. am smelling / are smelling D. smell / are smelling

13. Do you know _________ ?

A. who how many people go on Sundays to church

B. who go to church on Sundays how many people

C. how many people who go on Sundays to church

D. how many people who go to church on Sundays

14. We watch the cat ________ the tree.

A. climbed B. climb C. had climbed D. was climbing

15. If we had known your new address, we ________ to see you.

A. came B. will come C. would come D. would have come

16. He looked forward to ________ his first pay packet.

A. receive B. have received C. be receiving D. receiving

17. “Let’s go dancing, _________?” – “Yes, let’s.”

A. won’t we B. don’t we C. do we D. shall we

18. I wish I _________ all about this matter a week ago.

A. knew B. know C. had known D. B & C are correct.

19. He was _________ he could not wake up.

A. very tired that B. such tired that C. too tired that D. so tired that

20. Joan asked _________.

A. if there was coffee B. there was coffee

C. was there coffee D. where was the coffee

21. I ____ my house ____. That is why there is all this mess.

A. had – paint B. have – paint C. am having – painted D. had had – paint

22. He was made _________ for two hours.

A. to wait B. wait C. waiting D. waited

17. “Where are my jeans?” “They _________ at the moment. Sorry.”

A. are washing B. were washed C. are washed D. are being washed

23. It took weeks to get used to …… someone else around.

A. have B. having C. had D. has

24…… he comes in half an hour, I shall go alone.

A. If B. Unless C. Because D. When

“Did you like the new French movie?”

“My wife liked it but I was a little …….”

A. boring B. bored C. boredom D. bore

25. I want to have my suit …… . I’m going to a wedding on Saturday.

A. cleaned B. cleaning C. clean D. to clean

26. He turned …… the light so as not to waste electricity.

A. off B. of C. on D. down

 

b. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word: (7 0,2 = 1,4 pts)

 

Food plays an (27) …………………part in the development of nations. In countries where food scarce, people have to (28)………………… most of their time getting enough to eat.This usually slows down progress, because men have little time to devote to science, industry, government, and art. In nations where food is (29) ……………….and easy to get, men have more time to spend in activities that lead to progress, and enjoyment of leisure. The problem of (30) ………………….good food for everybody has not yet been solved.

Many wars have been fought for(31) ………………. . But it is no longer necessary to go to war for food. Nations are beginning to put scientific knowledge to work for a (32) ………………. of their food problems. They work together in the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) to help hungry nations (33) …………….more food.

c. Fill each blank with the appropriate form of the word given in brackets. (0) has been done as an example. (7 0,2 = 1,4 pts)

0. The temperature is very ….. variableat this time of the year. (vary)

34. Every year we celebrate our ……………………. (depend)
35. There’s no ………………….service in the United Kingdom. (nation)
36. He gets very angry if you ………………….with his ideas. (agree)
37. She smiles so …………………., doesn’t she? (attract)

38. The Internet has …………………… developed in every field. (increase)

39. I quarreled with my ……………… ,and he dismissed me. (employ)

40. The teacher asked each student to write a ………….… of his hometown. (describe)

d. Identify the error in the following sentences. (10 0,2 = 2,0 pts)

 

41. They asked a lot of questions, checked their figures, and came up with a best solution.

A B C D

42. We will be interviewed all job applicants as soon as their papers have been processed.

A B C D

43. This telephone isn’t as cheap the other one, but it works much better.

A B C D

44. That secretary of mine is so efficient that she always amazes myself with her speed.

A B C D

45. Most students were able of finding good jobs three to six months after graduation.

A B C D

46. We were made learning fifty new words every week.

A B C D

47. Both cattle or railroads helped build the city of Chicago.

A B C D

48. Mrs. Adams was surprise that her son and his friend had gone to the mountains to ski.

A B C D

49. The letter was sent by special delivery must be important.

A B C D

50. Suzy had better to change her study habits if she hopes to be admitted to a

A B C D

good university.

III. READING:

a. Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage:

 

ENGLISH IN THE UNITED STATES

English is the first language of many people in countries outside the United Kingdom. When you(51)……………. speakers of English from around the world, you (52)…………….. notice that they do not all speak in the same way. There are also some (53)………………. in the words they use, including the names of (54)…………….. objects that are part of everyone’s daily life. But although pronunciation and (55)……………. are not the same everywhere, it is interesting that English speakers(56)…………….. opposite sides of the world can understand (57)……………. other quite easily. It does not seem to(58)……………. where they learnt the language. And of course this is one reason why speakers of other languages are keen (59)……………. learning English too. If you know English, you are more(60)……………. to be able to study or work in all sorts of exciting places, such as the United States or Australia.

51. A. recognise B. meet C. find D. attend

52. A. originally B. strangely C. curiously D. immediately

53. A. mistakes B. corrections C. changes D. differences

54. A. common B. popular C. favourite D. general

55. A. reading B. composition C. dictation D. vocabulary

56. A. of B. in C. from D. at

57. A. each B. one C. the D. some

58. A. mine B. care C. matter D. worry

59. A. by B. on C. to D. for

60. A. likely B. probably C. possibly D. luckily

 

b. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer:

 

In the early years of television, educational specialists believed that it would be very useful in teaching and learning. Many schools have brought television sets, intending to use them effectively to improve the quality of education; but actually they are rarely used properly in classrooms. Meanwhile, children spending the majority of their out-of-school hours watching TV and their typical school days proceed as if television did not exist.

There are some explanations for the failure of television to get the interest of the teachers. Firstly, the schools that purchased television sets have not set aside money for equipment repairs and maintenance so these television sets are sooner and later out of work. Secondly these schools have not found an effective way to train teachers to integrate television into their ongoing instructional programs. Lastly, most teachers do not regard the quality of television and its usefulness in the classroom.

Teachers at the schools work hard for at least twelve years to train their students to become good readers. However, according a recent statistics, teenagers seldom spend their free time reading books and newspapers but watching television instead.

 

61. The text is about:

A. the use of television at schools. B. teaching and learning television

C. educational specialists. D. watching TV outside school.

62. When TV first appeared, educational specialists . . . . . . . .

A. did not appreciate it.

B. did not appreciate it.

C. believed it would be useful for schooling.

D. banned children from watching TV.

63. According to the text, TV . . . . . . . . .

A. has not been used properly in classrooms.

B. has been used effectively in classrooms.

C. has not existed in classrooms.

D. has not attracted students’ interest.

64. There are . . . . . . . . . explanations for the failure of television to get the interest of the teachers.

A. two B. three C. four D. five

65. Children spend their free time . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

A. reading books B. reading newspapers.

C. learning foreign languages D. watching TV.

 

IV WRITING:

a. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning.

66. Although Sue felt tired, she stayed up late talking to Jill.

–> Despite ………………………………………………………………………………………
67. It was a hot day so we had lunch outside in the garden.

–> It was such ………………………………………………………………………………….
68. I’ve been working for this company for ten years.

–> I started …………………………………………………………………………………………..
69. I’m sorry that I didn’t finish my homework last night.

–> I wish…………………………………………………………………………………………..

70. Reading scientific books is one of my interests.

–> I’m………………………………………………………………………………………………..

b. Write complete sentence using the suggested words.

71. Many people / fond / go / countryside / weekends.//

-> ………………………………………………………………………………………………

72 It / take / her / two hours / finish / such / difficult test.

-> ………………………………………………………………………………………………

73. I / invite / party / occasion / her birthday / last week

-> ………………………………………………………………………………………………

74. Tet / time / Vietnamese people / celebrate / beginning / spring.

-> ………………………………………………………………………………………………

75. Telephone / invent / Alexander Graham Bells

-> ………………………………………………………………………………………………

c. Some people say that the secondary school students should wear casual clothes at school. Do you agree? Why? or Why not? Write about 200 words. (3,0pts)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC: 2015 – 2016

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

I. PHONETICS:

 

a. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (3 0,2 = 0,6 pt)

 

1. C. tide

2. B. bread

3. D. laughed

 

b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (3 0,2 = 0,6 pt)

 

4. C. benefit

5. A. inspiration

6. C. afraid

 

II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:

a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. (20 0,2 = 4,0 pts)

 

7. C

8. A

9. D

10. A

11. D

12. D

13. C

14. B

15. B

16. B

17. D

18. B

19. B

20. D

21. A

22. A

23. B

24. D

25. C

26. A

b. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word: (7 0,2 = 1,4 pts)

 

27.important

28. spend

29. plentiful

30. providing

31. food

32. solution

33. produce

 

c. Complete the following passage with an appropriate form of the word in BLOCK CAPITAL. (0) has been done as an example. (7 0,2 = 1,4 pts)

 

34. independence

35. national

36. disagree

37. attractively

38. increasingly

39. employer

40. description

 

d. Identify the error in the following sentences. (10 0,2 = 2,0 pts)

 

41. D

42. A

43. A

44. C

45. C

46. C

47. B

48. A

49. A

50.B

 

III. READING:

a. Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage

(10 0,3 = 3,0 pts)

 

51. B

52. D

53. D

54. A

55. D

56. C

57. A

58. C

59. B

60. A

b. . Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer: (5 0,2 = 1,0 pt)

 

61. A

62. C

63. A

64. B

65.D

 

 

IV WRITING:

 

a. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. (5 0,4 = 2,0 pt)

66. Despite feeling tired, Sue stayed up late talking to Jill.

67. It was such a hot day that we had lunch outside in the garden.

68. I started working for this company ten years ago.

69. I wish I had finished my homework last night.

70. I’m interested in reading scientific books.

 

b. Write complete sentence using the suggested words. (5 0,2 = 1,0 pt)

71 Many people are fond of going to the countryside on the weekend.

72. . It took her two hours to finish such difficult test

73. I was invited to her party on the occasion of her birthday last week.

74. Tet is the time when Vietnamese people celebrate the beginning of the spring.

75. Telephone was invented by Alexander Granham Bells.

 

c. Write about 200 words. (3,0pts)

Bài viết phải đảm bảo có được những phần và chi tiết sau:

1. Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề của bài viết. (được 0,5 điểm)

2. Thân bài: Nêu được ít nhất 5 ý về việc đồng ý hay không đồng ý với quan điểm trong bài về việc mặc quần áo thường ngày ở trường, có ví dụ chứng minh thuyết phục về những quan điểm đó, đặc biệt đối với học sinh các trường trung học phổ thông (được 2,0 điểm)

3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở phần Thân bài.

(được 0,5 điểm)

 

 

Full name:…………………….…………WRITTEN TEST FOR GOOD SS. ENGLISH 9 – No 3

PART B: PHONETICS

I. Find out and circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (5× 0,2 = 1,0pt)

11. A. opened B. closed C. contained D. finished

12. A. laughter B. sightseeing C. daughter D. fight

13. A. island B. foodstuff C. stream D. service

14. A. paper B. receipt C. complain D. envelop

15. A. official B. ocean C. convenient D. precious

II. Pick out and circle the word whose main stress is different from those of the others.

(5× 0,2 = 1,0pt)

16. A. businessman B. secretary C. secondary D. artificial

17. A. dangerous B. opposite C. interested D. umbrella

18. A. happy B. early C. allowed D. injured

19. A. inspiration B. economic C. situation D. material

20. A. separate B. emigrate C. precaution D. demonstration

PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.

21. The students are being made………………..harder.

A. work B. worked C. to work D. working

22. Most people………………..will be polite to you…………..you are polite to them.

A. you meet/ unless B. you meet/ if

C. meet you/ only D. meeting you/ in case

23. He’s so shy. He hasn’t spoken anything…………………..he came here.

A. since B. when C. which D. for

24. I hope he doesn’t keep us………………..

A. wait B. waiting C. to wait D. for waiting

25. Do you know the man who is wearing the………………..

A. gold watch very old, valuable B. very valuable, old gold watch

C. old gold watch very valuable D. very old, gold valuable watch

26. Do you know the beautiful girl…………………?

A. sit in the car B. sat in the car

C. sitting in the car D. who sit in the car

27. Nobody says a word about the incident, ………………………?

A. does he B. doesn’t he C. do they D. don’t they

28. You’d better get someone………………….your living room.

A. redecorate B. redecorated C. to redecorate D. redecorating

29. He asked me……………………..

A. since when I am waiting B. since when I waited

C. how long I have been waiting D. how long I had been waiting

30. Mary was the last applicant……………………

A. to be interviewed B. to be interviewing

C. to interview D. to have interviewed

II. Read the text below. Use the words given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line.

One thing I know is that I wouldn’t like to have an occupation OCCUPY

that has anything to do with physics, (31)……………………or math; CHEMIST

I am not the (32)………………….type at all. In fact at school, I was a SCIENCE

complete (33)……………………in these subjects. Neither am I very FAIL

good at dealing with people, nor am I (34)……………………, so jobs AMBITION

in business, administration and (35)……………….don’t really interest MANAGE

me either. Moreover I find it (36)……………… ..to be surrounded by IRRITATE

a lot of people; I would much rather have a job involving creative work

or (37)……………………..skills of some sort. I would like to have the ART

chance of work outdoors (38)………………..and perhaps do a bit of OCCASION

traveling, too. I am not (39)………………..concerned about becoming PARTICULAR

rich but I would like to have a (40)………………income enough to REASON

live comfortably.

III. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the sentences below.

41. She said she (already sweep)………………………………………the floor.

42. We are having a swimming pool (build)…………………..……in the garden at present.

43. My favorite team (not win)…………………………….a single match so far this season.

44. Young people (become)……………………more and more politically aware these days.

45. You (stop)…………………………by a policeman if you try to cross the road now.

IV. Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition to complete the sentences below.

46. You should write……………………….ink, not with your pencil.

47. ……………………….my opinion, it’s a very good book.

48. My birthday is ……………………………the first of the month.

49. The climate of our country is favorable …………………..…agriculture.

50. She said she came two hours ahead……………………….. the performing time.

PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (5pts)

I. Read the following passage carefully and choose the best option to fit each space.

What is the money? The pound, the dollar or the franc are actually just like a gram or a kilometer. The difference is that you can exchange money for something (51)……… . A five pound note may buy a book, a huge bag of sweets, or a (52)……………of cinema tickets. But the note itself is only a printed (53)…………… of paper which costs almost nothing to make. Thousands of years (54)………………, people didn’t have money as we know (55)…………..

There were no banks (56)………………. even shops. In those days, Mr. Green, the farmer, exchanged the corn he (57)……………. grown for Mr. Hive’s honey. This was an exchange arranged between two (58)………………, each of whom had something that the other wanted. But in time, most societies invented their own “currencies” (59)……………..that people could exchange more. The different currencies began to join together, which is why (60)…………… Everyone uses a national currency.

51. A. other B. else C. another D. apart

52. A. couple B. double C. few D. several

53. A. slice B. part C. piece D. side

54. A. since B. past C. before D. ago

55. A. them B. it C. some D. that

56. A. or B. neither C. and D. but

57. A. had B. was C. did D. has

58. A. jobs B. things C. goods D. people

59. A. for B. so C. by D. because

60. A. today B. tomorrow C. recently D. soon

II. Read the following passage and fill each numbered blank with only ONE suitable word.

KEEPING FIT

Bodies are made to move! They are not designed for sitting around in front of the television or reading magazines. Keeping fit doesn’t (61)………………you have to be a super – athlete, and even a little exercise can give you a lot of fun. When you are fit and healthy, you’ll find you look better and feel better, you’ll (62)…………………more energy and self – confidence.

Every time you move, you are exercising. The human body is designed to bend, stretch, run, jump and climb. The (63)………………….it does, the stronger and fitter it will be. Best of all (64)………………….is fun. It’s what your body likes doing most – keeping on the move.

Physical exercise is not only good (65)……………..your body. People who take regular exercise are usually happier, more relaxed and more alert (66)…………….people who sit around all day. Try an experiment next time when you’re (67)………………a bad mood, go for a walk or play a ball game in the park. See how (68)…………………..better you feel after an hour.

A sense of achievement is yet another benefit of exercise. People feel good (69)……………..

themselves when they know they have improved their fitness. People who exercise regularly will (70)…………………..you that they have more energy to enjoy life. So have a go. You’ll soon see and feel the benefits!

III. Read the following passage carefully and circle the best answer: A, B, C or D

As a result of years of research, we know that too much animal fat is bad for our health. For example, Americans eat a lot of meat and only a small amount of grains, fruit and vegetables. Because of their diet, they have high rates of cancer and heart disease. In Japan, in contrast, people eat large amounts of grains and very little meat. The Japanese also have very low rates of cancer and heart disease. In fact, the Japanese will live longer than anyone else in the world. Unfortunately, when Japanese people move to the USA, the rates of heart disease and cancer increase as their diet changes. Moreover, as hamburgers, ice cream, and other high – fat foods become popular in Japan, the rates of heart disease and cancer are increasing there as well. People are also eating more meat and dairy products in other countries such as Cuba, Mauritius and Hungry. Not surprisingly, the disease rates in these countries are increasing along with the change in diet. Consequently, doctors everywhere advise people to eat more grains, fruit and vegetables and to eat less meat and fewer dairy products.

·       What is the main idea of this dialogue?

·      Doctors advise people to eat more grains, fruit and vegetables

·      Eating meat causes cancer and heart diseases.

·      The kind of diet we have can cause or prevent diseases

·      The Japanese’s rates of heart disease and cancer increase because they move to the USA

·       Why do the Japanese have low rates of heart disease and cancer?

·      Because they eat a lot of grains and very little meat

·      Because they do not eat animal fat.

·      Because their diet changes.

·      Because they live longer than anyone else in the world.

·       “………….the Japanese live longer than anyone else in the world”. What does ANYONE ELSE mean?

·      Some other people B. all other people C. most other people D. nobody

·       “………….Moreover, as hamburgers, ice cream, and other high – fat foods become popular in Japan” . What does MOREOVER mean?

·      However B. in addition C. then D. yet

·       “………the rates of heart disease and cancer are increasing there as well”. What does THERE refer to?

·      In the USA B. in Cuba

C. in Japan D. in Cuba, Mauritius, and Hungry

PART E: WRITING (5pts)

I. Rewrite the following sentences beginning as shown, so that the meaning remains the same. (10 × 0,2 = 2,0 pts)

76. “I wouldn’t go swimming on a day like that if I were you”, Brain said to Tom.

-> Brain advised..………………………………………………………………………

77. I regret selling my car. -> I wish…..……………………………………

78. Don’t tell anyone if we let you into the secret.

-> Don’t tell anyone if you…………………………………

79. He used to work harder, didn’t he? -> He doesn’t…………………………………….

80. They used to sew every button on by hand. ->Every button……..……………………

81. I am not good at skiing, but I’d like to learn. -> I don’t…………………………………

82. My brother and I are both too young to drive.

-> Neither my brother….…………………………………

83. I don’t have money with me now, otherwise I will buy that coat.

-> If I…….…………………………………………………

84. Your little brother’s hair is so long that he can’t see through it.

-> Your little brother ought to…………………………………

85. The teacher asked Tom what he was doing then.

-> The teacher asked, “…………………………………………?”

II. Do as directed in parentheses.

86. Nothing can stop us now, …………………………?.

(Complete the sentence with the correct tag)

87. The teacher said to the students, “Come here at 8 o’clock tomorrow”.

(Change into REPORTED SPEECH)

-> ……………………………………………………………

88. In future, patients might be able to get surgeons to perform their operations by remote controls. (Turn the sentence into the PASSIVE VOICE)

->……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………

89. She was very tired. She couldn’t say a word.

(Combine into one sentence, using SO….THAT)

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………

90. If/ down/ in/ there/ will/ you/ forests/ be/ floods/ cut/ trees/, /big/ the/ every year/ the/.

(Put these words in order to complete the sentence)

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………

 

III. Write a paragraph about 100- 120 words (2pts)

Topic: There are 4 skills in English: listening, speaking, reading and writing. Which skill is the most difficult to you? Why?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

——— The end——–

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM

PART B: PHONETICS (10 ×0,2 = 2pts)

I. (5 ×0,2 =1pt)

11.D

12A

13A

14B

15C

II. (5 ×0.2 =1pt)

16D

17D

18C

19D

20C

PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6pts)

·               (10 ×0,2 =2pts)

21C

22B

23A

24B

25B

26C

27C

28B

29D

30A

·               (10 ×0,2 =2pts)

31: chemistry

32: scientific

33: failure

34: ambitious

35: management

36: irritating

37: artistic

38: occasionally

39: particularly

40: reasonable

·               (5 ×0,2 =1pt)

41: already sweep -> had already swept

42: build -> built

43: win -> hasn’t won

44: become -> are becoming

45: stop -> will be stopped

·               (0,5× 0,2 = 1 pt)

46: in

47: in

48: on

49: of

50: of

D. READING COMPREHENSION (5pts)

I. (10 ×0,2 =2pts)

51B

52A

53C

54D

55B

56A

57A

58D

59B

60A

II. (10 ×0,1 =2pts)

61: mean

62: have

63: more

64: exercise

65: for

66: than

67: in

68: much

69: about

70: tell

III. (5 ×0,2 =1pt)

71A

72A

73B

74B

75C

PART E: WRITING (5pts)

I. (10× 0,2 = 2pts)

76. Brain advised Tom not to go swimming on a day like that.

77. I wish (that) I hadn’t sold my car.

78. Don’t tell anyone if you are let into the secret.

79. He doesn’t work as hard as he used to, does he?

80. Every button used to be sewn on by hand.

81. I don’t ski very well, but I’d like to learn.

82. Neither my brother nor I am old enough to drive.

83. If I had money with me now, I would buy that coat.

84. Your little brother ought to have/get his hair cut.

85. The teacher asked, “What are you doing now, Tom?”

II. (5× 0,2 = 1pt)

86. Nothing can stop us, can it?

87. The teacher told/ asked the students to come there at 8 o’clock the next/ following morning.

88. In future, patients might be able to get their operations performed (by surgeons) by remote controls.

89. She was so tired that she couldn’t say a word.

90. If you cut down the trees in the forests, there will be big floods every year.

III. (2pts)

– mở bài: nêu được quan điểm của mình :kỹ năng nào là khó nhất (0,5 điểm)

– Thân bài: nêu được ít nhất 4 ý, cho ví dụ (nếu có) một cách logic để chứng minh thuyết phục người đọc về quan điểm của mình (1 điểm)

– Kết bài: tóm tắt khẳng định lại quan điểm của mình (0,5 điểm)

*Chú ý: Các câu viết đúng ngữ pháp mới cho điểm tối đa.

 

 

 

Full name:…………………….…………WRITTEN TEST FOR GOOD SS. ENGLISH 9 – No 4

A. Phonetics (2ps)

I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others in each group.

·       A. chapter 

B. yatch 

C. manage 

D. panel

·       A. example 

B. fee

C. ink 

D. inhumane

·       A. junior 

B. humour 

C. stew 

D. purify

·       A. dollhall 

B. hall 

C. chalk 

D. forecast

·       A. recite 

B. refund 

C. reconcile 

D. reproduce

II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

·       A. relax 

B. recognize 

C. realize 

D. relatively

·       A. permanent 

B. power 

C. permission 

D. carpet

·       A. photography 

B. minority 

C. heroic 

D. amateur

·       A. practicality 

B. politician 

C. uncontrollable 

D. comfortable

·       A. managerial 

B. determination 

C. unbelievable 

D. inability

B. Vocabulary and grammar ( 2ps)

Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentence. Mark your answers in the answer sheet.

11.  We carried out a careful ………………..of the area.

 A. education   B. preparation   C. calculation   D. examination

12. In the primary school , a child is in the ………….. simple setting.

 A. comparison   B. comparative  C. comparatively   D. comparable

13. After the …….. of the new manager the staff worked more effectively.               

 A. dismissal   B. retirement   C. resignation   D. appointment

14. The doctor took one look at me and said that I was …………. overweight.

 A. slightly   B. accurately   C. certainly   D. continuously 

15.Try and see things from my point of view, and be a bit more ………….. .

  A. reasonable   B. reasoning   C. reason   D. reasonably

16.There were 50 ………………in the talent contest.  

  A. competitors   B. examinees   C. customers   D. interviewees

17. His performance in King Lear was most ………….. . 

A. impression   B. impressive   C. impressed   D. impress

18. Many trains have been cancelled and long ……………………are expected.

A. distance   B. postponements   C. timetable   D. delays

19. The journalist refused to …………………….. the source of his information.

  A. disclose   B. expose   C. propose   D. enclose

20. The existence of many stars in the sky ……… us to suspect that thre may be life on another planet.

  A. lead   B. leading   C. have led   D. leads

21. Be careful with your gun! You may ………… somebody.

 A. injure   B. wound   C. hurt   D. ache

22. Some of the passengers spoke to reporters about their ……. in the burning plane.

  A. knowledge   B. experience   C. occasion   D. event

23.After the enormous dinner he had to ………. his belt.

  A. broaden   B. enlarge   C. widen   D. loosen

24.Throw away that old vase. Its ………… .

  A. value   B. valuable   C. invaluable   D. valueless

25.- Is the lift is working?. – No , its …………Lets use the stairs.

  A. out of work   B. impossible   C. in danger   D. out of order

26.These people …………… for the most successful company in the town. 

  A. are seeming to work   B. seem working 

C. seem to be working  D. are seeming to be working

27. …………in the hospital for 4 years, he has decided to give up his work.

  A. To work   B. Working   C. Being working  D. Worked 

28. She has been sleeping for 10 hours! You …………her up.

  A. had better to wake  B. may wake  C. must wake   D. would like to wake

29. People think that an apple ………….. is good for you.

  A. in a day   B. for a day   C. for every day  D. a day

30. I’ll never forget ………….. you have told me.

  A. anything   B. what   C. anything that  D. all are correct

C. Reading: ( 6ps)

I. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete it. (2.5 pts)

People in many countries grow fresh water fish from eggs. They move the small fish into lakes and rivers. The fish live and (31) ___________ there. People go (32) ___________ in these lakes and rivers. They enjoy catching fish because fish is also good food. Now the Japanese grow salt water fish. Most of them are yellow tail fish. Workers grow the fish from eggs. Every time they feed the fish, they play (33) ___________ of piano music. The fish (34) ___________that piano music means food. When the fish are small, the Japanese put them into the ocean near the land. The fish find some of their (35) ___________ food. Workers also feed them. They play the same piano music. The fish (36) ___________know the music. They swim toward it and (37) ___________ the food. In (38) ___________months the fish are large. The Japanese play the same music. The fish swim toward it and the workers (39) ___________ them. The Japanese get about 15 percent of their seafood (40) ___________farms in the ocean.

31.  A. bread       B. born       C. grow       D. develop

32.  A. enjoying     B. fishing      C. shopping      D. catching

33.  A. songs       B. films       C. tapes       D. lot

34.   A. think        B. recognize  C. realize       D. learn

35.  A. own       B. own’s        C. self        D. self’s

36.  A. recently       B. mostly        C. nearly        D. already

37.  A. see        B. find        C. bite        D. hold

38.  A. few       B. a few        C. couple       D. many

39.  A. grasp        B. catch        C. seize        D. hold

40.  A. on        B. of        C. from        D. in

II. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word in the following passage.(2.5 pts)

The idea that a blind person could drive a car sounds crazy. And the concept of someone who can’t see driving a car at almost 150 miles per hour sounds even (41) ______. Miranda Naylor, a blind accountant from Southport, has done exactly that in an attempt to (42) _______ money for charity. Mrs. Naylor drove (43) _______ sports car for two miles in a straight line along the runway of a disused airfield. She was in radio contact with her husband Pete Naylor, (44) _______ was able to give her directions and advice in this way. Her amazing achievement is expected to raise about £50,000, which will be donated (45) _______ a company that trains dogs for the blind. Mrs. Naylor has been blind (46) _______ she was six years old and she still has some visual memories of the world (47) _______ her. She admits that not having her sight makes her life awkward at times. She believes that if you are disabled in any way, you shouldn’t waste time (48) _______ sorry for yourself. “It makes a lot of sense to keep busy” she says. “Achieving (49)_______ can be a great source of self confidence”. Miranda is now looking for a new challenge and (50) _______ like to ride a motorbike.

III. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the questions. 

Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking and diplomacy.

 Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English. Two – thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers – Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users than any other language in the world.

51. What is the main topic of this passage?

A.  The French influence on the English Language.

B.  The English history. 

C.  The expansion of English as an international language.

D.  The use of English for science and Technology.

52. Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?

A. in 1066   B. around 1350   C. before 1600   D. after 1600

53. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world except.

A. the slave trade   B. the Norman invasion   C. missionaries   D. colonization

54. The word “enclaves” in line 6 could be best replaced by which of the following.

A. communities   B. organizations   C. regions   D. countries

55. The word “proliferated” in line 7 is closest in meaning to which of the following

A. prospered   B. organized   C. disbanded   D. expanded

D. Writing (10 ps)

I.Choose the underlined word or phrase A, B, C or D in each sentence that needs correcting.

56. Opinion / football match / fair -……………………………………………………………………..

57. I / have / air_conditioner  / fix  / tomorrow. 

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

58. Provide  / your handwriting / legible / test scorer / accept / your answer.

 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

59. The patient / recover / more / rapidly / expected. 

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

60. I’d / play football / rather / watch / it / T.V

 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

61. We / informed / most / animals / zoo / starving / death. 

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

62. It / better / play safe / exams / give / original answer.

 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

63. small shopkeeper /  face / fierce competitiveness / supermarkets.

 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

64. I / not be / trouble / police / now if / take / your advice / first place.

 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

65. Hardly / I / go back / sleep when / loud noise / woke / up.

 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

II. Complete the second sentence using the word given, so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.(3ps)

66. Thankfully, Diana doesn’t need to have an operation. NO

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

67. The minister had to resign because of ill health. LED

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

68.You will benefit from seeing the doctor if you’ve just got a cold. WORTH

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

69.I’m seeing the nutritionist at three tomorrow. APPOITMENT

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

60. I don’t want to be a vegan any more! TIRED

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

71. Your arm probably won’t heal before the match on Saturday. UNLIKELY

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

72. I wish I could do a hundred press-ups in one go. ABLE

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

73. Do you think I should reduce the amount of chocolate I eat. ON

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

74. I lost my keys once before this month. SECOND

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

75. It’s a waste of time denying that you did it when we’ve got proof. POINT

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

III. Write an argument: (4 ps)

Write an argument on the topic: "Should students study in group?"

Suggestions:

Your argument should have:

– Introduction: giving your point of view for / against.

– Arguments:

+ including supporting ideas presented in a logical way (one argument in each paragraph).

+ giving examples or fact to make your argument more convincing.

– Conclusion: summing up the arguments.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

 

ANSWER KEY

A. Phonetics

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest.

1. B. yatch 2. B. feed 3.D. purify 4.A.forecast 5.C.reconcile

II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

1.A. relax 2.C.permission 3.D.amateur 4.D.comfortable 5.B. determination

B. Vocabulary and grammar:

Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentence. Mark your answers in the answer sheet.

11. B. preparation 12.C. comparatively   13.D. appointment 14.C. certainly  

15. A. reasonable   16.A. competitors   17.B. impressive   18.D. delays

19. A. disclose   20. D. leads 21.B. wound  22.B. experience  

23. D. loosen 24.D. valueless 25.D. out of order 26.C. seem to be working 

27. B. Working 28.C. must wake   29.D. a day 30. D. all are correct

C. Reading:

I.Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete it.

31.D. develop 32.B. fishing   33.C. tapes      34.C. realize      35.A. own      

36.D. already 37.B. find        38.B. a few      39.B. catch        40.  A. on       

II.Fill each blank in the following passage with a suitable word.

41. crazier

42. raise

43. a

44. who

45. to

46. since

47. around

48. feeling

49. something

50. would

III.Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the questions. 

51.C.The expansion of English as an international language. 52.D. after 1600

53.B. the Norman invasion  54. A. communities   55. A. prospered  

D. Writing:

I.Choose the underlined word or phrase A, B, C or D in each sentence that needs correcting.

56. Opinion / football match / fair

    In my opinion, the football match was fair 

57. I / have / air-conditioner  / fix  / tomorrow.

     I will have an air-conditioner fixed tomorrow.

58. Provide  / your handwriting / legible / test scorer / accept / your answer.

 Provided that your handwriting is legible, your answer will be accepted by any test  scorer.

59. The patient / recover / more / rapidly / expected.

  The patient recovered more rapidly than expected. 

60. I’d / play football / rather / watch / it / T.V

I’d prefer to play football rather than watch it on T.V. 

61. We / informed / most / animals / zoo / starving / death.

We have been informed that most of the animals at the zoo are starving to death.

62. It / better / play safe / exams / give / original answer.

  Its often better to play safe in exams than to give an original answer. 

63. small shopkeeper /  face / fierce competitiveness / supermarkets.

  The small shopkeeper is facing fierce competitiveness from supermarkets. 

64. I / not be / trouble / police / now if / take / your advice / first place.

I wouldnt be in trouble with the police now if I had taken your advice in the first place.

65. Hardly / I / go back / sleep when / loud noise / woke / up.

Hardly had I gone back to sleep when a loud noise woke me up.

II.Complete the second sentence using the word given, so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.

66. Thankfully, there is no need for Diana to have an operation.

67.Ill health led to the minister’s resigenation.

68.It is not worth(your) seeing the doctor if you’ve just got a cold.

69. I’ve made/got an appointmentwith/to see the nutritionist at three tomorow.

70. I am tired of being a vegan!

71. Your arm is unlikely to heal before the match on Saturday.

72. I’ve love to be able to do a hundred press-ups in one go.

73. Do you think I should cut down on chocolate.

74.This is the second time I have lost my key this month.

75. There is no point (in) denying that you did it when we’ve got proof.

III. Write an argument: (4 ps)

 

 

Full name:…………………….……… WRITTEN TEST FOR GOOD SS. ENGLISH 9 – No 5

 

PART 2. Phonology:

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other. (1.0 pts)

1.

A. hobby

B. honest

C. humor

D. hole

2.

A. flood

B. typhoon

C. groom

D. balloon

3.

A. fly

B. hobby

C. energy

D. ordinary

4.

A. garbage

B. garage

C. sewage

D. carriage

5.

A. exchange

B. champagne

C. teacher

D. children

II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others. (1.0 pts)

1.

A. appliance

B. activity

C. adventure

D. average

2.

A. favorite

B. government

C. influence

D. identify

3.

A. economic

B. volcanic

C. disappointed

D. scientific

4.

A. reputation

B. description

C. suggestion

D. pollution

5.

A. magazine

B. pictures

C. documentary

D. entertain

PART 3- Grammar and vocabulary.

I. Choose the word or phrase which best complete each sentence. (2.0 pts)

1. Hung……………….go fishing with his uncle when he lived in the countryside.

A. used to

B. is used to

C has used to

D. who used to

2. If I ……………..you, I’d take some rest before the game tomorrow

A. am

B. could be

C. were

D. would be

3. You have never been to Ha Long Bay,…………..?

A. have you

B. haven’t you

C. you have

D. you haven’t

4. If only I……………… play the guitar as well as you.

A. would

B. shall

C. could

D. might

5. There’s no need to be nervous. You’re quite capable……………. your final exam.

A. of passing

B. passing

C. to pass

D. pass

6. As she arrived at the theatre, she remembered that she………to meet a friend somewhere else

A. promised

B. had promised

C. has promised

D. promised

7. " Does Jack know about your project". "Yes, I told him…………….to do"

A. what was I planning

B. what I have planned

C. what did I plan

D what I was planning

8. If you have finished the test, you……………the room

A. would

B. may leave

C. may be leaving

D. could leave

9. I wish you……………… me how to do this exercise

A. can help

B. will help

C. could help

D. should help

10. The children…………………..to the zoo.

A. were enjoyed taken B. enjoyed being taken C. were enjoyed taking D enjoyed taking

II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the sentences below. (1pt)

1. He wishes that he (be)………………………….…. a famous designer one day.

2. The car needs repairing. It (buy)……………………….…….two days ago.

3. You (stop)………………………….by a policeman if you try to cross the road now.

4. I’m very fond of Jane, but I (not see)……………………….……much of her recently.

5. We are going to have our house (repair)………………………… next month.

III. Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition to complete the sentences below. (1pt)

1. Nam isn’t here at the moment. He’ll be back ……………..……..a few minutes.

2. Sales of jeans went ………………..….. and the storekeepers got a lot of money.

3. The teacher divided the class……………..……..two groups.

4. Everybody was very surprised…………………….the news on the TV this morning.

5. Miss Lan’s school is preparing ………………………the coming Teacher’s Day.

 

IV. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (2.0 pts)

1. He is interested in the …………… of old building ( Preserve) .

2. Don’t depend on him; he’s a very ………………….. person. (rely).

3. Rob was dismissed after being told by his………that he must leave in a month’s time. ( employ)

4. He’s quite an……… person. He plays lots of sport and goes running everyday (energy)

5. English is a……………easy language for Swedes to learn. (compare)

6. I think it’s very………of him to expect us to work over time every night this week. (reason)

7. His boss told him off because he had behaved ………….. (responsible)

8. She left school with good …………. (qualify)

9. She has one of the biggest ………… in Britain (collect)

10. Sorry about the mistakes, I …………. the instructions you gave me. (understand)

PART 4. READING:

I. Read the following passage and the decide which option A,B,C or D best fits each space. (2.0 pts)

Have you ever stopped (1)……… why people give each (2)……….. eggs at Easter? – The Christian festival of Easter celebrates the return of Christ from the dead, but the festival is actually name (3)……….. the goddess of the sun, Eostre, whose name is taken from the East where she (4)……….. In very ancient times, Easter was a celebration that winter was (5)……… and that a new life was about to begin . The rabbit, (6)……….. to the number of young it produces, it the symbol of life. In some parts of the world, the rabbit leaves large (7) …….. of eggs (another symbol of new life) in the garden and children have to find as many as they can . This is very (8)…………. Christmas when Santa Claus leave presents for individual children. At Easter children have to be independent and (9)……… after themselves . In this (10)……….. the hunt for Easter eggs presents the need for young people to go out in to the world and make their own fortune .

1 A. to wonder

B. wondering

C. wonder

D. wander

2 A. else

B. person

C. others

D. other

3 A.for

B. about

C. after

D. with

4 A. goes

B. sets

C . rises

D. raises

5 A. finish

B. conclusion

C. up

D. over

6 A. as

B. since

C. due

D. because

7 A. numbers

B. sums

C. fingures

D. totals

8 A. like

B. unlike

C. different

D. similar

9 A. take

B. get

C. look

D. carry

10 A. \day

B. way

C. habit

D. time

II.Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to the questions below;

(1.0 pts)

During the teenage years, many young people can at times be difficult to talk to .They often seem to dislike being questioned. They may seem unwilling to talk about theiwork in school. This is a normal development at this age , though it can be very hard for parents to understand. It is part of becoming independent of teenagers trying to be adult while they are still growing up . Young people are usually more willing to talk if they believe that questions are asked out of real interest and not because people are trying to check up on them.

Parents should do their best to talk to their sons and daughters about school work and future plant but should not push them to talk if they don’t want to. Parents should also watch for the danger signs: some young people in trying to be adult may experiment with sex, drugs, alcohol, or smoking. Parents need to watch for any signs of unusual behaviour which may be connected with these and get help if necessary.

1.. This passage is taken from a…

A. handbook for parents B. school timetable

C. teenage magazine. C. book for children

2. Why do adults sometimes find teenagers difficult to talk to…..

A. because most teenagers are quiet

B. because teenagers don’t want to talk to other people.

C. because teenagers think adults are not honest

D. because most teenagers hate adults.

3. When can you expect young people to be more talkative than usual.

A. When people talk to them because they are really interested and not just checking on them.

B. When adults give them a lot money to spend.

C. When adults talk to them about something other than their work in school.

D. When adults talk to them about sex, alcohol and drugs.

4. Some teenagers experiment with drinking bad smoking because

A. cigarettes and alcohol are available everywhere.

B. cigarettes and alcohol are cheap

C. women like smoking and drinking men

D. they regard them as a mark of adulthood

5. The word BEHAVIOUR in the passage most nearly means

A. feeling B. manners

C. activities D. reaction.

III. Fill in the blanks in the following passage with ONE suitable word. (2.0 pts)

Watching Television and going for a walk are the most popular leisure (1)…………….. in Britain. But although longer holidays and shorter working hours have given people more free (2) …………, women generally have less free time (3)………… men, because they spend time (4)…………….. domestic work, shopping and childcare ..

Surveys showed that more men (5)……………… newspapers than women, and (6)………….. slightly higher proportion of adult read Sunday newspapers than read (7)……………….. morning national newspaper.

More people are taking holidays abroad (8)…………… 1971 only 36 percent of (9)………….. in Britain had been abroad on holiday; but by 1983 this proportion had (10)…………….. to 62 percent, nearly fifteen million people.

PART 5. WRITING:

I. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting

1. They asked me what did happen lastnight, but I was unable to tell them.

A B C D

2. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large,

A B C D

industrial cities today.

3. These televisions are quite popular in Europe, but those ones are not.

A B C D

4. Nora hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments.

A B C D

5. Many people believe that New York is the most great city in America.

A B C D

II : Rewrite these sentences, beginning with the words given in such a way that they remain the same meaning as the old ones : (2.0 pts)

1.The last time Henry smoked a cigarette was in 2005.

Henry hasn’t……………………………………………………………………

2.Jack is stopped by the police because he passes the speed limit.

If ……………………………………………………………………………….

3.Bill and Peter are too young to ride motor-cycles.

Bill and Peter are not…………………………………………………………..

4.The flood was so high that they had to live on the roofs.

It was such………………………………………………………………………

5.This winter is colder than the last winter. ->The last winter………………………………

6.People all over the country have helped the poor people in the flood region.

The poor people………

7.It’s cold in the morning, so the children go to school in heavy clothes.

Because of………………………………………………………………………

8.David has read a lot of books, however, he cannot find a good solution.

Although………………………………………………………………………..

9. Nothing was done about it. ->Nobody ……………………………….. ……………….

10. It is not a habit of mine to sleep in the afternoon.

I am ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

III: Write a short passage of argument ( about 100- 120 words ) to persuade your friends wear uniform when they are at school. (2.0pts)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

PHÒNG GD& ĐT THANH OAI

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI

CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN LỚP 9

NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016

Môn: Tiếng Anh

(Hướng dẫn chấm gồm: 02 trang)

PART ONE: LISTENING:

Listen and fill in the blank with ONE word. (2.0 pts)

1. are

2. Spring

3. sky

4. so

5. seasons

6. trees

7. sunset

8. all

9. leaves

10. wintertime

 

Part 2. Phonology:

I. 1.0 point ( 0.2×5)

1. B

2. A

3. A

4. B

5.B.

II. 1.0 point( 0.2×5)

1. D

2. D

3. B

4. A

5.B.

Part 3. Grammar and vocabulary.

I. 2.0 points ( 0.2×5)

1. A

2.C

3.A

4.C

5.A

6.B;

7.D

8.B

9.C

10.B

II. (5 ×0,2 =1pt)

1. be -> would be 2. buy -> was bought 3. stop -> will be stopped

4. not see -> haven’t seen 5. repair -> repaired

III. (0,5× 0,2 = 1 pt)

1. in 2. up 3. into 4. at 5. for

IV. 2.0 points ( 0.2×5)

1. preservation

4. energetic

7. irresponsibly

2. un reliable

5. comparatively

8. qualifications

3. employer

6. unreasonable

9. collections

 

 

10. misunderstood.

Part 4. Reading:

I. 2.0 points (0.2×5)

1. A

2.D

3.C

4.C

5.D

6.C

7.A

8.A

9.C

10.B

II. 1.0 point (0.2×5)

1.A

2.

3.A

4.D

5.B

III. 2.0 points (0.2×5)

1. activities 2. time 3. than 4. on 5. read 6. a 7. daily 8. in 9. adults 10. risen

Part 5. Writing:

 

I. 1.0 points ( one point for each correct answer ) ( 0,2×5)

1. A

2.B

3.C

4.A

5.C

 

.B

8.B

9.C

10.A

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

II: Rewrite these sentences, beginning with the words given in such a way that they remain the same meaning as the old ones: (2.0 pts) ( 0.2×5)

1.Henry hasn’t smoked any cigarette since 2005.

2.If Jack didn’t pass the speed limit, he wouldn’t be stopped by the police.

3.Bill and Peter are not old enough to ride motor-cycles.

4.It was such a high flood that they had to live on the roofs.

5.The last winter is/was not so/as cold as this winter.

Or: The last winter is/was warmer than this winter.

6.The poor people in the flood region have been helped by people all over the country.

7.Because of the cold morning, children go to school in heavy clothes.

8.Although David has read a lot of books, he cannot find a good solution

9. Nobody did anything about it.

10. I am not in the habit of sleeping in the afternoon.

III. Write a short passage of argument (about 100- 120 words ) to persuade your friends wear uniform when they are at school. (2 pts)

Bài viết đảm bảo được những nội dung sau:

·      Đúng chủ đề.

·      Đảm bảo nội dung.

·      Đúng chính tả và ngữ pháp.

·      Diễn đạt ý trôi chảy có kết nối ý.

 

 

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